SAVE TIME AND USE CBIC CIC PDF DUMPS FORMAT FOR QUCIK PREPARATION

Save Time And Use CBIC CIC PDF Dumps Format For Qucik Preparation

Save Time And Use CBIC CIC PDF Dumps Format For Qucik Preparation

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CBIC Certified Infection Control Exam Sample Questions (Q34-Q39):

NEW QUESTION # 34
Which of the following microorganisms does NOT cause gastroenteritis in humans?

  • A. Rhinovirus
  • B. Coxsackievirus
  • C. Rotavirus
  • D. Norovirus

Answer: A

Explanation:
Gastroenteritis, characterized by inflammation of the stomach and intestines, typically presents with symptoms such as diarrhea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) emphasizes the identification of infectious agents in the "Identification of Infectious Disease Processes" domain, aligning with the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) guidelines on foodborne and enteric diseases. The question requires identifying the microorganism among the options that does not cause gastroenteritis, necessitating an evaluation of each pathogen's clinical associations.
Option B, "Rhinovirus," is the correct answer as it does not cause gastroenteritis. Rhinoviruses are the primary cause of the common cold, affecting the upper respiratory tract and leading to symptoms like runny nose, sore throat, and cough. The CDC and WHO classify rhinoviruses as picornaviruses that replicate in the nasopharynx, with no significant evidence linking them to gastrointestinal illness in humans. Their transmission is primarily through respiratory droplets, not the fecal-oral route associated with gastroenteritis.
Option A, "Norovirus," is a well-known cause of gastroenteritis, often responsible for outbreaks of acute vomiting and diarrhea, particularly in closed settings like cruise ships or nursing homes. The CDC identifies norovirus as the leading cause of foodborne illness in the U.S., transmitted via the fecal-oral route. Option C,
"Rotavirus," is a major cause of severe diarrheal disease in infants and young children worldwide, also transmitted fecal-orally, with the CDC noting its significance before widespread vaccination reduced its impact. Option D, "Coxsackievirus," a member of the enterovirus genus, can cause gastroenteritis, particularly in children, alongside other syndromes like hand-foot-mouth disease. The CDC and clinical literature (e.g., Mandell, Douglas, and Bennett's Principles and Practice of Infectious Diseases) document its gastrointestinal involvement, though it is less common than norovirus or rotavirus.
The CBIC Practice Analysis (2022) and CDC guidelines on enteric pathogens underscore the importance of distinguishing between respiratory and gastrointestinal pathogens for effective infection control. Rhinovirus's exclusive association with respiratory illness makes Option B the microorganism that does not cause gastroenteritis.
References:
* CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022.
* CDC Norovirus Fact Sheet, 2021.
* CDC Rotavirus Vaccination Information, 2020.
* Mandell, Douglas, and Bennett's Principles and Practice of Infectious Diseases, 9th Edition, 2019.


NEW QUESTION # 35
A suspected measles case has been identified in an outpatient clinic without an airborne infection isolation room (AIIR). Which of the following is the BEST course of action?

  • A. Patient should be masked and placed in a private room with door closed.
  • B. Patient should be offered the Measles. Mumps, Rubella (MMR) vaccine
  • C. Patient should be sent home
  • D. Staff should don a respirator, gown, and face shield.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Measles is a highly contagious airborne disease, and the best immediate action in an outpatient clinic without an Airborne Infection Isolation Room (AIIR) is to mask the patient and isolate them in a private room with the door closed.
Why the Other Options Are Incorrect?
* A. Patient should be sent home - While home isolation may be necessary, sending the patient home without proper precautions increases exposure risk.
* B. Staff should don a respirator, gown, and face shield - While N95 respirators are necessary for staff, this does not address patient containment.
* C. Patient should be offered the MMR vaccine - The vaccine does not treat active measles infection and should be given only as post-exposure prophylaxis to susceptible contacts.
CBIC Infection Control Reference
Measles cases in outpatient settings require immediate airborne precautions to prevent transmission.


NEW QUESTION # 36
An employee is presenting to Occupational Health for clearance prior to starting work at a healthcare facility.
They have a history of having received the Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccination. What is the preferred methodology for pre-work clearance?

  • A. Initial chest radiograph
  • B. Referral to tuberculosis (TB) clinic
  • C. Two-step purified protein derivative-based Tuberculin skin test (TST)
  • D. Interferon-gamma release assay

Answer: D

Explanation:
The preferred methodology for pre-work clearance in this scenario is the interferon-gamma release assay (IGRA), making option C the correct choice. This conclusion is supported by the guidelines from the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC), which align with recommendations from the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) for tuberculosis (TB) screening in healthcare workers.
The employee's history of receiving the Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccination, a vaccine commonly used in some countries to prevent severe forms of TB, is significant because it can cause false-positive results in the traditional Tuberculin skin test (TST) due to cross-reactivity with BCG antigens (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain I: Identification of Infectious Disease Processes, Competency 1.3 - Apply principles of epidemiology).
The IGRA, such as the QuantiFERON-TB Gold test, measures the release of interferon-gamma from T-cells in response to specific TB antigens (e.g., ESAT-6 and CFP-10) that are not present in BCG or most non- tuberculous mycobacteria. This makes it a more specific and reliable test for detecting latent TB infection (LTBI) in individuals with a history of BCG vaccination, avoiding the false positives associated with the TST.
The CDC recommends IGRA over TST for BCG-vaccinated individuals when screening for TB prior to healthcare employment (CDC Guidelines for Preventing Transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, 2005, updated 2019).
Option A (referral to tuberculosis clinic) is a general action but not a specific methodology for clearance; it may follow testing if results indicate further evaluation is needed. Option B (initial chest radiograph) is used to detect active TB disease rather than latent infection and is not a primary screening method for pre-work clearance, though it may be indicated if IGRA results are positive. Option D (two-step purified protein derivative-based Tuberculin skin test) is less preferred because the BCG vaccination can lead to persistent cross-reactivity, reducing its specificity and reliability in this context. The two-step TST is typically used to establish a baseline in unvaccinated individuals with potential prior exposure, but it is not ideal for BCG- vaccinated individuals.
The IP's role includes ensuring accurate TB screening to protect both the employee and patients, aligning with CBIC's focus on preventing transmission of infectious diseases in healthcare settings (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents).
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain I: Identification of Infectious Disease Processes, Competency 1.3 - Apply principles of epidemiology; Domain III: Infection Prevention and Control, Competency 3.2 - Implement measures to prevent transmission of infectious agents. CDC Guidelines for Preventing Transmission of Mycobacterium tuberculosis, 2005, updated 2019.


NEW QUESTION # 37
Which of the following is an example of an outcome measure?

  • A. Rate of multi-drug resistant organisms acquisition
  • B. Hand hygiene compliance rate
  • C. Adherence to Environmental Cleaning
  • D. Timing of preoperative antibiotic administration

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is C, "Rate of multi-drug resistant organisms acquisition," as it represents an example of an outcome measure. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, outcome measures are indicators that reflect the impact or result of infection prevention and control interventions on patient health outcomes or the incidence of healthcare-associated infections (HAIs).
The rate of multi-drug resistant organisms (MDRO) acquisition directly measures the incidence of new infections caused by resistant pathogens, which is a key outcome affected by the effectiveness of infection control practices (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.4 - Evaluate the effectiveness of infection prevention and control interventions).
Option A (hand hygiene compliance rate) is an example of a process measure, which tracks adherence to specific protocols or practices intended to prevent infections, rather than the resulting health outcome. Option B (adherence to environmental cleaning) is also a process measure, focusing on the implementation of cleaning protocols rather than the end result, such as reduced infection rates. Option D (timing of preoperative antibiotic administration) is another process measure, assessing the timeliness of an intervention to prevent surgical site infections, but it does not directly indicate the outcome (e.g., infection rate) of that intervention.
Outcome measures, such as the rate of MDRO acquisition, are critical for evaluating the success of infection prevention programs and are often used to guide quality improvement initiatives. This aligns with CBIC's emphasis on using surveillance data to assess the effectiveness of interventions and inform decision-making (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.5 - Use data to guide infection prevention and control strategies). The focus on MDRO acquisition specifically highlights a significant healthcare challenge, making it a prioritized outcome measure in infection control.
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competencies 2.4 - Evaluate the effectiveness of infection prevention and control interventions, 2.5 - Use data to guide infection prevention and control strategies.


NEW QUESTION # 38
The annual report for Infection Prevention shows a dramatic decrease in urinary catheter days, a decrease in the catheter utilization ratio, and a slight decrease in the number of catheter-associated urinary tract infections (CAUTIs). The report does not show an increase in the overall rate of CAUTI. How would the infection preventionist explain this to the administration?

  • A. The rate may be higher if the denominator is very small.
  • B. The rate is incorrect and needs to be recalculated.
  • C. The rate is not affected by the number of catheter days.
  • D. Decreasing catheter days will not have an effect on decreasing CAUTI.

Answer: A

Explanation:
The correct answer is B, "The rate may be higher if the denominator is very small," as this provides the most plausible explanation for the observed data in the annual report. According to the Certification Board of Infection Control and Epidemiology (CBIC) guidelines, the CAUTI rate is calculated as the number of CAUTIs per 1,000 catheter days, where catheter days serve as the denominator. The report indicates a dramatic decrease in urinary catheter days and a slight decrease in the number of CAUTIs, yet the overall CAUTI rate has not increased. This discrepancy can occur if the denominator (catheter days) becomes very small, which can inflate or destabilize the rate, potentially masking an actual increase in the infection risk per catheter day (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.2 - Analyze surveillance data). A smaller denominator amplifies the impact of even a slight change in the number of infections, suggesting that the rate may be higher than expected or less reliable, necessitating further investigation.
Option A (the rate is incorrect and needs to be recalculated) assumes an error in the calculation without evidence, which is less specific than the denominator effect explanation. Option C (the rate is not affected by the number of catheter days) is incorrect because the CAUTI rate is directly influenced by the number of catheter days as the denominator; a decrease in catheter days should typically lower the rate if infections decrease proportionally, but the lack of an increase here suggests a calculation or interpretation issue. Option D (decreasing catheter days will not have an effect on decreasing CAUTI) contradicts evidence-based practice, as reducing catheter days is a proven strategy to lower CAUTI incidence, though the rate's stability here indicates a potential statistical artifact.
The explanation focusing on the denominator aligns with CBIC's emphasis on accurate surveillance and data analysis to guide infection prevention strategies, allowing the infection preventionist to advise administration on the need to review data trends or adjust monitoring methods (CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II:
Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competency 2.5 - Use data to guide infection prevention and control strategies). This insight can prompt a deeper analysis to ensure the CAUTI rate reflects true infection risk.
References: CBIC Practice Analysis, 2022, Domain II: Surveillance and Epidemiologic Investigation, Competencies 2.2 - Analyze surveillance data, 2.5 - Use data to guide infection prevention and control strategies.


NEW QUESTION # 39
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